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An arbitrary phase assumption of some kind is necessary, since we have only amplitude data. This one avoids the necessity of assuming any specific phase function, but is more realistic than assuming that φ= 0 (which would lead to the same result). However, the phase lag may be small in both channels (at the low frequencies we are considering), so that any difference would cause only a second-order error of this assumption. (Otherwise, perhaps it would not yield such a plausible amplitude response.)
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